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By Brandon (registered) | Posted May 05, 2011 at 08:13:28 in reply to Comment 63076
So in a hypothetical environment where you have a conservative, a left-leaning liberal and an ndp, 36% of the people vote conservative and the vote for the two lefties is split 32% each, the conservative gets elected. Given that 64% of the electorate voted left, how was the will of the electorate represented?
One could make the same argument going to the right back when there were the PCs and the Reform.
I am disappointment in you're grammar.
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