Comment 78868

By DowntownInHamilton (registered)
Posted June 23, 2012 at 06:34:52 in reply to Comment 78866

So, taking GDP out of the equation (since globalization really didn't exist in the 1950s), is this why Canadians have less $ in their pocket at the end of the day than they did years ago? Is this why we make more but have less?

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