Comment 37558

By Tammany (anonymous) | Posted January 28, 2010 at 16:57:14

Just to clarify, when I spoke of "regulation" above I was refering to the existence of a formal legal regime.

I am not suggesting that pedestrian behaviour ought to fall entirely outside the scope of normative regulation. But because a pedestrian's behaviour does not, under normal circumstances, pose a real appreciable risk to others, I believe convention and, perhaps more importantly, the standard of reasonableness are the only "regulations" which should obtain.

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