Comment 20391

By ventrems (registered) | Posted March 27, 2008 at 10:43:57

Can any legal experts explain how it is possible for one level of government to just "download" a program they initiated onto another level of government and expect them to pay for it? I understand this sort of thing happens all the time, but what allows them to do this? Seems irresponsible.

One would think both levels of government would have to agree on the download for it to proceed, and I can't imagine the municipal governments agreeing to take on a burden that their budgets are clearly not equipped to handle.

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